Free IIA IIA-CIA-Part3 Practice Questions 2026 - Page 15
Ready for IIA-CIA-Part3 Exam?
This practice test is your final exam before the REAL exam
Dare to Take It?
Practice Questions
An organization selected a differentiation strategy to compete at the business level. Which of the following structures best fits this strategic choice?
A. Functional structure
B. Divisional structure
C. Divisional structure
D. Functional structure with cross-functional teams
Explanation:
When an organization pursues a differentiation strategy, it seeks to compete by offering products or services that are perceived as unique, superior, or distinctive in ways that customers value — for example, through brand image, quality, innovation, customer service, or features. This strategy requires the organization to be innovative, responsive to customer needs, and coordinated across functions to deliver a differentiated offering. A functional structure with cross-functional teams best supports this because the functional structure provides the specialized expertise needed to develop superior products and capabilities (e.g., R&D, marketing, engineering), while cross-functional teams break down silos between functions, enabling the coordination, integration, and speed required to innovate and respond to customer preferences — critical for differentiation. This combination balances efficiency (specialization) with flexibility and responsiveness (integration).
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Functional structure
– A pure functional structure groups employees by specialty (marketing, finance, operations). While it builds deep expertise, it tends to be slow, siloed, and inward-focused, making it harder to coordinate across functions for innovation. It is generally better suited to a cost leadership strategy, where efficiency and economies of scale matter most.
B. Divisional structure
– A divisional structure organizes the company by product, geography, or customer. While it can support differentiation by allowing each division to tailor offerings to its market, it often duplicates resources, increases costs, and can fragment overall strategy. On its own, it is less clearly aligned with a business-level differentiation strategy than a structure explicitly built for cross-functional integration.
C. Divisional structure
– This is the same option as B (appears to be a duplication/typo in the question). Either way, the reasoning in B applies.
Reference:
IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Business Acumen / Strategic Management — business-level strategies (Porter's generic strategies) and their alignment with organizational structures.
According to lIA guidance on IT, which of the following plans would pair the identification of critical business processes with recovery time objectives?
A. The business continuity management charter.
B. The business continuity risk assessment plan
C. The business Impact analysis plan
D. The business case for business continuity planning
Explanation:
According to IIA guidance on IT, the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is the process that identifies critical business processes and pairs them with Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs). The BIA determines which business functions are essential to the organization's survival and how quickly they must be restored after a disruption. It establishes the RTO, which represents the maximum acceptable time before a process must be restored, and the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) for each critical process. This provides the foundation for prioritizing recovery efforts and allocating resources in the business continuity plan.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. The business continuity management charter – The charter is a high-level document that establishes the authority, scope, objectives, and governance structure for the business continuity management program. It does not identify critical business processes or set recovery time objectives. That is the role of the BIA.
B. The business continuity risk assessment plan – The risk assessment plan focuses on identifying and evaluating threats, vulnerabilities, and potential impacts that could disrupt operations. While it informs the business continuity management program, it does not specifically pair critical business processes with RTOs. That linkage is established through the BIA.
D. The business case for business continuity planning – The business case is a justification document that outlines the costs, benefits, and rationale for investing in business continuity planning. It is used to obtain management approval and resources, not to identify critical processes or determine recovery time objectives.
📚 Reference:
* IIA-CIA-Part3 – Business Continuity Management (BCM) – Covers business impact analysis and its role in identifying critical processes and establishing recovery objectives.
A company records income from an investment in common stock when it does which of the following?
A. Purchases bonds
B. Receives interest
C. Receives dividends
D. Sells bonds
Explanation:
When a company invests in common stock, it earns income in the form of dividends declared and paid by the investee company. Under accounting principles, dividend income is recognized when the right to receive the dividend is established. The key point is that income from an investment in common stock arises from dividends, not from interest, which applies to debt securities such as bonds, or from the purchase or sale of the securities themselves.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Purchases bonds
– Purchasing bonds is an investment activity, not a source of income. Buying a bond does not generate income at the time of purchase; it creates an investment asset. Any income from bonds comes later in the form of interest.
B. Receives interest
– Interest income is associated with debt securities such as bonds, not common stock. Common stockholders are owners, not creditors, so they receive dividends rather than interest. This option describes income from bond investments.
D. Sells bonds
– Selling bonds is a disposal of an investment, which may generate a gain or loss, but it is not the way a company records income from an investment in common stock. This option relates to debt securities and realized gains or losses, not dividend income.
📚 Reference:
IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Financial Management / Accounting – Covers investment accounting and the recognition of income from equity versus debt securities.
Which of the following is true regarding the use of remote wipe for smart devices?
A. It can restore default settings and lock encrypted data when necessary
B. It enables the erasure and reformatting of secure digital (SD) cards
C. It can delete data backed up to a desktop for complete protection if required
D. It can wipe data that is backed up via cloud computing
Explanation:
Remote wipe is a security feature that allows an organization to remotely erase data and restore a smart device to its default (factory) settings when the device is lost, stolen, or compromised. It is a key control in mobile device management (MDM) policies. When remote wipe is initiated, it can remove sensitive organizational data from the device, reset it to its original factory configuration, and lock encrypted data so that unauthorized users cannot access it. This capability is essential for protecting confidential information and preventing data breaches when a device is no longer under the organization's physical control.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. It enables the erasure and reformatting of secure digital (SD) cards – While some remote wipe tools may extend to removable storage, this is not a universal or defining capability of remote wipe. The standard function focuses on the device's internal storage and settings, not specifically the reformatting of SD cards, which may be encrypted separately or not manageable remotely.
C. It can delete data backed up to a desktop for complete protection if required – Remote wipe targets the smart device itself, not backups stored on a separate desktop or computer. Backups on other devices are outside the scope of a remote wipe command and would require separate deletion procedures, so this statement overstates the capability.
D. It can wipe data that is backed up via cloud computing – Remote wipe does not typically erase data stored in cloud backups. Cloud backup data resides on external servers managed by the cloud provider, and remote wipe generally affects only the local device. Wiping cloud backups would require separate administrative action through the cloud service, so this statement is inaccurate.
📚 Reference:
IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Information Technology – Covers mobile device security, mobile device management (MDM), and data protection controls for smart devices.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the management-by-objectives method?
A. Management by objectives is most helpful in organizations that have rapid changes
B. Management by objectives is most helpful in mechanistic organizations with rigidly defined tasks
C. Management by objectives helps organizations to keep employees motivated.
D. Management by objectives helps organizations to distinguish clearly strategic goals from operational goals
Explanation:
Management by objectives (MBO) is a performance management approach in which managers and employees jointly set specific, measurable goals, monitor progress toward them, and evaluate performance based on the achievement of those goals. A key benefit of MBO is that it increases employee motivation and commitment because employees participate in setting their own objectives, understand what is expected of them, and receive feedback on their progress. This participative goal-setting process aligns individual objectives with organizational objectives and gives employees a clear sense of purpose and ownership, which drives motivation and engagement.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Management by objectives is most helpful in organizations that have rapid changes – MBO relies on setting stable, measurable objectives over a defined period. In organizations experiencing rapid changes, objectives may become obsolete quickly, making MBO less effective. More flexible or adaptive approaches are typically better suited to highly dynamic environments.
B. Management by objectives is most helpful in mechanistic organizations with rigidly defined tasks – MBO emphasizes participation, communication, and individual goal setting, which aligns better with organic, flexible structures. In mechanistic organizations with rigidly defined tasks, there is less room for the participative goal-setting that makes MBO effective, so this statement is inaccurate.
D. Management by objectives helps organizations to distinguish clearly strategic goals from operational goals – While MBO does cascade objectives from top to bottom and can link individual goals to organizational goals, its primary purpose is not to distinguish strategic from operational goals. MBO focuses on setting and achieving performance objectives at all levels; the distinction between strategic and operational goals is handled through other planning frameworks.
📚 Reference:
IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Business Acumen / Organizational Behavior – Covers performance management approaches, including management by objectives and employee motivation.
Following an evaluation of an organization's IT controls, an internal auditor suggested improving the process where results are compared against the input. Which of the following IT controls would the Internal auditor recommend?
A. Output controls
B. Input controls
C. Processing controls
D. Integrity controls
Explanation:
Output controls are designed to ensure the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the results produced by an IT system. They involve comparing the processed results (output) against the original input or expected results to verify that the system processed the data correctly. When an internal auditor suggests improving the process where results are compared against the input, this directly describes an output control activity. Examples include reconciliation of output totals to input totals, review of output reports for reasonableness, and distribution controls to ensure outputs reach authorized users only.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Input controls – Input controls focus on ensuring that data entered into the system is accurate, complete, authorized, and valid at the point of entry. They address the quality of data going into the system (e.g., edit checks, validation routines, batch controls), not the comparison of results against the input after processing has occurred.
C. Processing controls – Processing controls are designed to ensure that data is processed accurately and completely during the processing stage itself (e.g., run-to-run controls, control totals, error reports). While they relate to the processing of data, they do not specifically describe the comparison of final results against the original input, which is the hallmark of output controls.
D. Integrity controls – Integrity controls are broad safeguards that ensure data remains accurate, consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification throughout its lifecycle. While related to data reliability, this is a general category rather than the specific control that compares results (output) against input, so it is not the best answer here.
📚 Reference:
* IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Information Technology – Covers IT general and application controls, including input, processing, and output controls.
An internal auditor observed that the organization's disaster recovery solution will make use of a cold site in a town several miles away. Which of the following is likely to be a characteristic of this disaster recover/ solution?
A. Data is synchronized in real time
B. Recovery time is expected to be less than one week
C. Servers are not available and need to be procured
D. Recovery resources end data restore processes have not been defined.
Explanation:
A cold site is a disaster recovery facility that provides basic infrastructure, such as physical space, power, HVAC, and network connectivity, but does not include pre-installed hardware, software, or configured systems. Because servers and other equipment are not available at a cold site, the organization must procure, install, and configure them after a disaster occurs. This makes the cold site the least expensive recovery option but also the one with the longest recovery time, since rebuilding the environment from scratch takes considerable effort. The characteristic that servers are not available and need to be procured accurately describes a cold site.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Data is synchronized in real time – Real-time data synchronization is a characteristic of a hot site, where systems and data are continuously replicated and kept ready for immediate failover. A cold site has no pre-installed systems or synchronized data, so this statement does not apply.
B. Recovery time is expected to be less than one week – A cold site typically requires days to weeks to become operational because hardware must be procured, installed, and configured, and data must be restored. A recovery time of less than one week is more consistent with a warm or hot site, not a cold site.
D. Recovery resources and data restore processes have not been defined – Even with a cold site, the organization should still have defined recovery resources, procedures, and data restore processes as part of its disaster recovery plan. The distinguishing feature of a cold site is the absence of pre-installed equipment, not the absence of planning or defined processes.
Reference:
IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Business Continuity Management (BCM) and Disaster Recovery Planning – Covers alternate site strategies, including hot, warm, and cold sites.
Which of the following is required in effective IT change management?
A. The sole responsibility for change management is assigned to an experienced and competent IT team
B. Change management follows a consistent process and is done in a controlled environment.
C. Internal audit participates in the implementation of change management throughout the organisation.
D. All changes to systems must be approved by the highest level of authority within an organization.
Explanation:
Effective IT change management requires that all changes to IT systems, infrastructure, and applications follow a consistent, standardized, and repeatable process. This typically includes requesting, reviewing, approving, testing, implementing, and documenting changes in a controlled environment (such as a test or staging environment) before deployment to production. A consistent process ensures that changes are authorized, assessed for risk and impact, tested adequately, and implemented with minimal disruption to operations. Performing changes in a controlled environment reduces the risk of unintended consequences, errors, and system failures.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. The sole responsibility for change management is assigned to an experienced and competent IT team – Effective change management requires involvement from multiple parties, including IT, business users, and management, not solely an IT team. Assigning sole responsibility to one team creates a lack of segregation of duties, insufficient oversight, and potential blind spots in risk assessment and approval.
C. Internal audit participates in the implementation of change management throughout the organisation – Internal audit's role is to provide independent, objective assurance and consulting services. Participating in the implementation of change management would impair internal audit's independence and objectivity. Internal auditors may review and evaluate change management processes, but they should not implement or manage them.
D. All changes to systems must be approved by the highest level of authority within an organization – Requiring every change, including routine or minor changes, to be approved by the highest level of authority is impractical and inefficient. Effective change management uses a tiered approval structure based on the significance, risk, and impact of the change, with routine changes handled at appropriate lower levels of authority.
Reference:
IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Information Technology – Covers IT change management and control processes.
Based on lest results, an IT auditor concluded that the organization would suffer unacceptable loss of data if there was a disaster at its data center. Which of the following test results would likely lead the auditor to this conclusion?
A. Requested backup tapes were not returned from the offsite vendor In a timely manner.
B. Returned backup tapes from the offsite vendor contained empty spaces.
C. Critical systems have boon backed up more frequently than required.
D. Critical system backup tapes are taken off site less frequently than required
Explanation:
The maximum acceptable amount of data loss following a disaster is governed by the organization's Recovery Point Objective (RPO).
Impact of Infrequent Off-Site Backups: If critical system backups are taken off-site less frequently than required (e.g., weekly instead of daily), any disaster affecting the main data center between off-site transfers will destroy all recent data generated since the last off-site shipment. Because the local backups at the data center are lost in the disaster, the organization can only restore data up to the date of the last off-site tape, directly causing an unacceptable loss of data beyond the defined RPO.
Why the Incorrect Options Fail:
A. Requested backup tapes were not returned from the offsite vendor in a timely manner – This is incorrect because delays in retrieving off-site tapes primarily impact the Recovery Time Objective (RTO), increasing the duration of downtime, rather than causing permanent loss of data (RPO).
B. Returned backup tapes from the offsite vendor contained empty spaces – This is incorrect because unused or empty space on magnetic backup tapes is normal behavior and simply indicates that the volume of backed-up data did not fill the tape's maximum storage capacity.
C. Critical systems have been backed up more frequently than required – This is incorrect because backing up systems more frequently than required reduces potential data loss and improves recovery capability rather than causing unacceptable data loss.
Reference:
IIA CIA Exam Syllabus, Part 3, Section IV – Information Technology & Business Continuity – Covers disaster recovery planning, RPO versus RTO metrics, and off-site storage controls.
Which of the following inventory costing methods requires the organization to account for the actual cost paid for the unit being sold?
A. Last-in-first-Out (LIFO}.
B. Average cost.
C. First-in-first-out (FIFO).
D. Specific identification
Explanation:
The specific identification method is an inventory costing method in which the organization tracks the actual cost of each individual unit of inventory and charges that exact cost to cost of goods sold when the unit is sold. This method requires detailed recordkeeping because each item must be uniquely identified (e.g., by serial number, lot number, or tag) so that its actual purchase cost can be matched to its sale. It is typically used for high-value, low-volume, or uniquely identifiable items such as automobiles, jewelry, or custom-made goods. Because it uses the actual cost paid for the specific unit being sold, it is the only method that directly meets the requirement described in the question.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Last-in-first-out (LIFO) – LIFO assumes that the most recently purchased units are sold first, so cost of goods sold is based on the cost of the latest purchases, not the actual cost of the specific unit sold. It is a cost flow assumption rather than a method of tracking actual unit costs.
B. Average cost – The average cost method calculates a weighted average cost per unit and assigns that average cost to cost of goods sold and ending inventory. It does not track or account for the actual cost paid for the specific unit being sold; instead, it blends costs across all units.
C. First-in-first-out (FIFO) – FIFO assumes that the oldest units are sold first, so cost of goods sold is based on the cost of the earliest purchases, not the actual cost of the specific unit sold. Like LIFO, it is a cost flow assumption rather than a method based on actual unit identification.
Reference:
* IIA-CIA-Part3 content area on Financial Management / Accounting – Covers inventory costing methods and their impact on financial statements.
| Page 15 out of 69 Pages |