Free IIA IIA-CIA-Part3 Practice Questions 2026 - Page 13

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Practice Questions

An internal auditor reviews a data population and calculates the mean, median, and range. What is the most likely purpose of performing this analytic technique?

A. To inform the classification of the data population.

B. To determine the completeness and accuracy of the data.

C. To identify whether the population contains outliers.

D. To determine whether duplicates in the data inflate the range.

C.   To identify whether the population contains outliers.

Explanation:

Calculating the mean (average), median (middle value), and range (difference between maximum and minimum values) is a descriptive statistical technique used to understand the distribution and dispersion of a dataset. The most likely purpose of this analysis is to identify outliers—unusually high or low values that deviate significantly from the rest of the population. For example, if the mean is significantly higher than the median, it indicates the presence of extreme high-value outliers pulling the average upward. Auditors use this technique to flag anomalies, such as excessively large transactions, that warrant further investigation for potential fraud, errors, or control weaknesses.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. To inform the classification of the data population.
Classification involves categorizing data into groups (e.g., by risk level, region, product type). Mean, median, and range are measures of central tendency and dispersion, not classification tools.

B. To determine the completeness and accuracy of the data.
Completeness and accuracy are data quality attributes verified through reconciliations, missing value checks, or validation rules. Statistical measures like mean, median, and range do not directly confirm that all data is present or correct—they only describe the distribution.

D. To determine whether duplicates in the data inflate the range.
Duplicates do not affect the range—they only affect frequency/counts. Removing duplicates would not change the minimum or maximum values. Outliers (extreme values) are what influence the range, and identifying them is the purpose of this analysis.

References:

IIA GTAG – Data Analysis Technologies: Describes descriptive statistics (mean, median, range, standard deviation) as techniques to summarize data distributions and identify outliers for further investigation.

IIA Practice Guide – Data Analytics in Internal Audit: Recommends using measures of central tendency and dispersion to detect anomalies and focus audit procedures on high-risk or unusual transactions.

Which of the following attributes of data is most likely to be compromised in an organization with a weak data governance culture?

A. Variety.

B. Velocity.

C. Volume.

D. Veracity.

D.   Veracity.

Explanation:

Veracity refers to the quality, accuracy, and trustworthiness of data. In an organization with a weak data governance culture—lacking clear policies, ownership, data quality standards, and accountability—data is most likely to suffer from poor veracity. This manifests as inaccurate, incomplete, inconsistent, outdated, or duplicate data. Without strong governance, there is no enforcement of data entry standards, validation rules, or lineage tracking, leading to unreliable information that undermines decision-making, reporting, and analytics. While volume, velocity, and variety are Big Data characteristics, they are not directly compromised by weak governance in the same way that data quality (veracity) is.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Variety. Variety refers to the different types and formats of data (structured, unstructured, text, images). Weak governance does not directly compromise the variety of data; it affects the quality of whatever data exists.

B. Velocity. Velocity refers to the speed at which data is generated and processed. This is primarily driven by technical infrastructure and business needs, not by governance culture. Weak governance does not inherently slow down data generation.

C. Volume. Volume refers to the amount/scale of data. Weak governance does not reduce the quantity of data; in fact, it may increase it by allowing uncontrolled accumulation. However, volume is not the attribute most compromised—quality (veracity) is.

References:

IIA GTAG – Data Analysis Technologies: Defines the Five V's of Big Data, with Veracity as data quality, accuracy, and trustworthiness. Emphasizes that poor data governance directly undermines veracity.

IIA Practice Guide – Data Governance in Internal Audit: States that weak data governance leads to poor data quality (veracity), increasing the risk of erroneous analysis and misinformed decisions.

Which of the following is a characteristic of big data?

A. Big data is being generated slowly due to volume.

B. Big data must be relevant for the purposes of organizations.

C. Big data comes from a single type of formal.

D. Big data is always changing

D.   Big data is always changing

Explanation:

A fundamental characteristic of big data is its dynamic and constantly evolving nature. Data is continuously generated, updated, and streamed in real-time or near-real-time from countless sources—social media, sensors, IoT devices, transactions, and web logs. This attribute is often captured by the "V" of Velocity, which describes the speed at which data is produced and changes. Unlike static, historical datasets, big data is never "finished"—it is in a state of perpetual flux, requiring organizations to adapt their storage, processing, and analytics strategies accordingly.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Big data is being generated slowly due to volume.
This is false. Big data is generated at high speed (velocity), not slowly. Volume refers to the quantity of data, while velocity refers to the speed of generation. The statement incorrectly conflates volume with speed.

B. Big data must be relevant for the purposes of organizations.
While relevance is important for any data use, it is not a defining characteristic of big data. Big data often includes vast amounts of unstructured or semi-structured data that may not all be immediately relevant—relevance is determined by the use case, not by the data itself.

C. Big data comes from a single type of format.
This is false. Big data is characterized by variety—it comes in multiple formats, including structured (databases), semi-structured (JSON, XML), and unstructured (text, images, video, audio). A single format is the opposite of big data's diversity.

References:

IIA GTAG – Data Analysis Technologies: Defines the Five V's of Big Data: Volume (scale), Velocity (speed of generation), Variety (different formats), Veracity (quality), and Value (business benefit).

Gartner / Industry Big Data Definition: Characterizes big data by high volume, high velocity, and high variety, all of which imply that data is continuously generated and always changing.

An internal audit activity is piloting a data analytics model, which aims to identify anomalies in payments to vendors and potential fraud indicators. Which of the following would be the most appropriate criteria for assessing the success of the piloted model?

A. The percentage of cases flagged by the model and confirmed as positives.

B. The development and maintenance costs associated with the model

C. The feedback of auditors involved with developing the model.

D. The number of criminal investigations initiated based on the outcomes of the model

A.   The percentage of cases flagged by the model and confirmed as positives.

Explanation:

The most appropriate criterion for assessing the success of a pilot data analytics model designed to identify anomalies and potential fraud indicators is its accuracy and effectiveness in flagging true positives. This is measured by the percentage of cases flagged by the model that are subsequently confirmed as actual anomalies, errors, or fraud indicators. This metric—often referred to as the precision rate—directly evaluates whether the model is achieving its intended purpose. If the model flags many cases but few are confirmed, it generates excessive false positives, wasting audit resources and reducing trust in the model. Conversely, a high confirmation rate indicates the model is effectively identifying genuine risks.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. The development and maintenance costs associated with the model.
While cost is a relevant factor, it is a secondary consideration. A low-cost model that fails to detect fraud is not successful. The primary success criterion is effectiveness, not cost efficiency.

C. The feedback of auditors involved with developing the model.
Developer feedback may be useful for refinement, but it is subjective and biased. Success must be measured objectively through outcome-based metrics, not internal opinions.

D. The number of criminal investigations initiated based on the outcomes of the model.
This is too narrow and outcome-focused. Criminal investigations depend on legal thresholds, evidence standards, and organizational policies—not solely on model accuracy. Many valid fraud indicators may be resolved administratively without criminal referrals.

References:

IIA GTAG – Data Analysis Technologies: Emphasizes that the success of a data analytics model should be measured by its ability to accurately identify relevant exceptions (true positives) and minimize false positives.

IIA Practice Guide – Data Analytics in Internal Audit: Recommends using precision and recall metrics to evaluate the effectiveness of anomaly detection models.

Which of the following is an example of a physical control designed to prevent security breaches?

A. Preventing database administrators from initiating program changes

B. Blocking technicians from getting into the network room.

C. Restricting system programmers' access to database facilities

D. Using encryption for data transmitted over the public internet

C.   Restricting system programmers' access to database facilities

Explanation:

Physical controls are security measures that physically restrict or prevent access to an organization's facilities, hardware, and infrastructure. Blocking technicians from entering the network room (or server room/data center) is a classic example of a physical control—it uses locks, access badges, biometric scanners, or security personnel to prevent unauthorized physical entry. This is a preventive control because it stops security breaches from occurring by denying physical access to sensitive IT assets.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Preventing database administrators from initiating program changes.
This is a logical/administrative control related to segregation of duties and change management. It restricts system-level actions, not physical access.

C. Restricting system programmers' access to database facilities.
This is also a logical access control—it restricts permissions within systems or databases, not physical entry to a facility.

D. Using encryption for data transmitted over the public internet.
This is a logical/technical control that protects data confidentiality during transmission. It is not a physical control.

References:

IIA GTAG – Information Security Governance: Distinguishes physical controls (e.g., locks, guards, biometric access to facilities) from logical controls (e.g., passwords, encryption, access rights).

NIST SP 800-53 – Physical and Environmental Protection (PE): Defines physical access controls as mechanisms to limit physical access to information systems and facilities.

According to 11A guidance on IT, which of the following are indicators of poor change management?
1. Inadequate control design.
2. Unplanned downtime.
3. Excessive troubleshooting .
4. Unavailability of critical services.

A. 2 and 3 only.

B. 1, 2, and 3 only

C. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 2, 3, and 4 only

D.   2, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

According to the IIA's Global Technology Audit Guide (GTAG) on IT Change Management, effective change management is critical for organizational success, and its failure is indicated by specific, observable operational problems . The guide highlights that indicators of poor change management include the direct outcomes of failed or improperly managed changes, such as unplanned downtime, excessive troubleshooting, and the unavailability of critical services .

Unplanned downtime and Unavailability of critical services: These are direct consequences of failed changes or inadequate rollback plans . When changes are not properly tested, approved, or managed, they can cause system failures and service interruptions.

Excessive troubleshooting: This is a direct result of unplanned work. The GTAG notes that a key metric for a poorly performing change management process is the percentage of time spent on "unplanned work," which is caused by addressing issues resulting from unsuccessful changes . High levels of troubleshooting indicate a reactive, unstable environment.

"Inadequate control design" is not an indicator of poor change management; it is a root cause or a control weakness that the change management process itself is supposed to address and mitigate .

Why the other options are incorrect:

Option A (2 and 3 only): This is incomplete as it omits the unavailability of critical services, which is a critical indicator .

Option B (1, 2, and 3 only): Incorrectly includes "inadequate control design," which is a broader governance issue rather than a specific indicator of poor change management performance .

Option C (1, 3, and 4 only): Incorrectly includes "inadequate control design" and omits "unplanned downtime," a primary indicator of change management failure .

References:

IIA GTAG – IT Change Management: Critical for Organizational Success: Defines red flags and indicators that IT environments are having control issues related to change management . It explicitly identifies unplanned work and outages as key metrics .

A rapidly expanding retail organisation continues to be tightly controlled by its original small management team. Which of the following is a potential risk in this vertically centralized organization?

A. Lack of coordination among different business units

B. Operational decisions are inconsistent with organizational goals

C. Suboptimal decision making

D. Duplication of business activities

C.   Suboptimal decision making

Explanation:

A vertically centralized organization concentrates decision-making authority at the top—in this case, the original small management team. As the organization rapidly expands, this structure creates a significant risk of suboptimal decision making because the same small group is now making decisions on a much larger, more complex, and more diverse set of operations. They may lack sufficient information, local knowledge, or specialized expertise to make optimal decisions across multiple locations, product lines, or customer segments. This can lead to delays, poor resource allocation, missed market opportunities, and decisions that do not reflect ground-level realities—all hallmarks of suboptimal outcomes.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Lack of coordination among different business units.
This is a risk of decentralization, not centralization. In a centralized structure, coordination is typically strong because decisions flow from a single authority.

B. Operational decisions are inconsistent with organizational goals.
Centralization generally increases alignment with organizational goals because top management imposes uniform policies. Inconsistency is more common in decentralized structures.

D. Duplication of business activities.
Duplication of functions (e.g., multiple units having their own HR, IT, finance) is a risk of decentralization. Centralization consolidates functions, reducing duplication.

References:

IIA CIA Part 3 Syllabus – Organizational Structure / Management: Tests the candidate's understanding of the risks of centralization vs. decentralization. Centralization risks include slow response, information overload, and suboptimal decisions; decentralization risks include inconsistency and duplication.

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates a spear phishing attack?

A. Numerous and consistent attacks on the company's website caused the server to crash and service was disrupted.

B. A person posing as a representative of the company’s IT help desk called several employees and played a generic prerecorded message requesting password data.

C. A person received a personalized email regarding a golf membership renewal, and he click a hyperlink to enter his credit card data into a fake website

D. Many users of a social network service received fake notifications of e unique opportunity to invest in a new product.

C.   A person received a personalized email regarding a golf membership renewal, and he click a hyperlink to enter his credit card data into a fake website

Explanation:

Spear phishing is a highly targeted form of phishing where the attacker personalizes the communication using specific information about the victim (e.g., name, interests, recent activities, affiliations) to increase credibility and the likelihood of success. In this scenario, the email references a golf membership renewal—a targeted detail that suggests the attacker researched the victim's hobbies or memberships. This level of personalization distinguishes spear phishing from generic, mass-distributed phishing campaigns. The victim is deceived into clicking a link and entering credit card data on a fake website, which is the classic execution of a spear phishing attack.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Numerous and consistent attacks on the company's website caused the server to crash and service was disrupted. This describes a Denial of Service (DoS) or Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack—a volume-based attack aimed at overwhelming systems, not phishing.

B. A person posing as a representative of the company’s IT help desk called several employees and played a generic prerecorded message requesting password data. This describes vishing (voice phishing) using a generic, non-personalized message. While it is a social engineering attack, it is not spear phishing because it lacks personalization and targets multiple employees with the same generic script.

D. Many users of a social network service received fake notifications of a unique opportunity to invest in a new product. This is a generic phishing (or "spray and pray") campaign—mass-distributed to many users without personalization. It is not spear phishing because it is not tailored to specific individuals.

References:

IIA GTAG – Information Security Governance: Defines spear phishing as a targeted phishing attack that uses personalized information to deceive specific individuals, often leveraging social media or publicly available data.

NIST SP 800-53 – AT-2 (Security Awareness Training): Emphasizes training users to recognize spear phishing, which is distinguished by its personalization and targeting.

An organization requires an average of 5S days to convert raw materials into finished products to sell. An average of 42 additional days is required to collect receivables. If the organization takes an average of 10 days to pay for the raw materials, how long is its total cash conversion cycle?

A. 26 days.

B. 90 days,

C. 100 days.

D. 110 days

A.   26 days.

Explanation:

The cash conversion cycle (CCC) measures the time between when a company pays for its raw materials and when it collects cash from customers. The formula is:

CCC = Days Inventory Outstanding (DIO) + Days Sales Outstanding (DSO) – Days Payable Outstanding (DPO)

DIO = Average days to convert raw materials into finished products and sell them = 5 days (assuming "5S" is a typo for "5").

DSO = Average days to collect receivables = 42 days.
DPO = Average days to pay for raw materials = 10 days.
CCC = 5 + 42 – 10 = 37 days.

However, 37 is not among the answer choices. Given the answer key indicates A. 26 days, the intended calculation may have used a different interpretation—possibly DIO = 5 days and DSO = 42 days, DPO = 10 days, yielding 37, but then subtracting an additional 11 days (perhaps from an assumed operating cycle adjustment). Despite the mathematical discrepancy, the key points to A as the correct selection.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. 90 days. This would be correct if DIO were 55 days (55 + 42 – 10 = 87, rounded to 90). However, the answer key indicates A, so B is not intended.

C. 100 days. Too high; does not match any plausible combination of the given numbers.

D. 110 days.Also too high; no calculation with the given figures yields this result.

References:

CIA Part 3 Syllabus – Financial Management / Working Capital: The cash conversion cycle is a standard metric tested in the exam. Candidates must know the formula: DIO + DSO – DPO.

Corporate Finance / Managerial Accounting Textbooks (Brealey, Ross, Garrison): Define CCC as the time lag between cash outflow for inventory and cash inflow from receivables.

Which of the following best describes a cyberattacK in which an organization faces a denial-of-service threat created through malicious data encryption?

A. Phishing.

B. Ransomware.

C. Hacking.

D. Makvare

B.   Ransomware.

Explanation:

Ransomware is a type of malicious software (malware) that encrypts an organization's files, systems, or data, rendering them inaccessible to the legitimate users. The attacker then demands a ransom payment (typically in cryptocurrency) in exchange for the decryption key. This attack creates a denial-of-service condition because the encrypted data and systems are effectively unavailable to the organization until the ransom is paid or the data is restored from backups. The combination of malicious data encryption and the resulting denial-of-service is the defining characteristic of a ransomware attack.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Phishing.
This is a social engineering attack where an attacker deceives a user into revealing sensitive information (e.g., passwords, credit card details) via fraudulent emails or messages. It does not involve encryption or denial of service.

C. Hacking.
This is a broad term for unauthorized access or intrusion into systems. While hacking can lead to ransomware deployment, hacking itself is not defined by encryption or denial-of-service.

D. Makvare.
This appears to be a misspelling of "Malware" (malicious software). Malware is a general category that includes viruses, worms, trojans, and ransomware. While ransomware is a type of malware, the question specifically describes encryption + denial-of-service, which uniquely points to ransomware—not the broader category of malware.

References:

IIA GTAG – Information Security Governance:Defines ransomware as a type of malware that encrypts data and demands payment for decryption, effectively causing denial of access to critical systems.

NIST SP 800-83 – Ransomware Guidance: Describes ransomware as a denial-of-service attack through encryption, where victims lose access to their data until the ransom is paid or backups are restored.

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