Free IIA IIA-CIA-Part3 Practice Questions 2026 - Page 12

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Practice Questions

A chief audit executive wants to implement an enterprisewide resource planning software. Which of the following internal audit assessments could provide overall assurance on the likelihood of the software implementation's success?

A. Readiness assessment.

B. Project risk assessment.

C. Post-implementation review.

D. Key phase review.

A.   Readiness assessment.

Explanation:

A readiness assessment is the best choice for providing overall assurance on the likelihood of a software implementation's success. It is a forward-looking evaluation conducted before the system goes live to determine whether the organization is prepared for the change.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Project risk assessment
. This focuses on identifying potential risks during the implementation process, but it does not provide an overarching evaluation of the organization's overall preparedness or a direct conclusion on the likelihood of success.

C. Post-implementation review.
This is a backward-looking assessment conducted after the system is live. It evaluates whether the project met its goals and whether benefits were realized. It cannot provide assurance on the likelihood of success before the fact.

D. Key phase review.
This is a point-in-time check at a specific project milestone. While useful for tracking progress, it does not provide the "overall assurance" across all the interconnected elements required for success, which is the hallmark of a readiness assessment.

References:

IIA GTAG – Auditing IT Projects: This guide emphasizes that "readiness assessments" are a key component of a comprehensive project audit strategy, designed to independently verify that the project is set up for success before final implementation.

IIA GTAG – Auditing Business Applications: This guidance highlights that internal auditors should evaluate applications across their entire lifecycle. Assessing readiness for a new application (like an ERP) is a critical step to ensure the organization is prepared to realize its objectives.

An organization has an immediate need for servers, but no time to complete capital acquisitions. Which of the following cloud services would assist with this situation?

A. Infrastructure as a Service (laaS).

B. Platform as a Service (PaaS).

C. Enterprise as a Service (EaaS).

D. Software as a Service (SaaS).

A.   Infrastructure as a Service (laaS).

Explanation:

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides on-demand access to virtualized computing infrastructure—including servers, storage, networking, and operating systems—over the internet. The cloud provider owns, manages, and maintains the physical hardware, while the organization provisions and configures the virtual resources as needed. IaaS is ideal for situations where an organization has an immediate need for servers but lacks the time or capital to purchase, deploy, and configure physical hardware. The organization can rapidly deploy virtual servers in minutes, paying only for what they use (operational expense), avoiding the lengthy capital acquisition process.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Platform as a Service (PaaS).
PaaS provides a development and deployment platform (middleware, databases, runtime environments) for building applications. It abstracts away underlying infrastructure but does not provide raw virtual servers for general use—it is designed for developers, not for quick server provisioning for general IT needs.

C. Enterprise as a Service (EaaS).
This is not a recognized cloud service model. The standard cloud models are IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS.

D. Software as a Service (SaaS).
SaaS delivers fully functional applications (e.g., email, CRM, ERP) over the internet. It does not provide raw servers or infrastructure; it provides ready-to-use software, which does not address the need for provisioning servers.

References:

NIST SP 800-145 – Cloud Computing Definition: Defines IaaS as providing processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources where the consumer can deploy and run arbitrary software, including operating systems and applications.

Which of the following is the most appropriate way lo record each partner's initial Investment in a partnership?

A. At the value agreed upon by the partners.

B. At book value.

C. At fair value

D. At the original cost.

C.   At fair value

Explanation:

When a partner contributes non-cash assets to a partnership, the initial investment must be recorded at the fair value of the contributed assets on the date of contribution. Fair value represents the current market value that a willing buyer would pay and a willing seller would accept in an arm's-length transaction. This ensures that the partnership's accounting records reflect the economic reality of the contribution, providing a more meaningful basis for determining each partner's capital account and ownership percentage. Assets contributed are recorded at fair value, while cash contributions are recorded at their face amount.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. At the value agreed upon by the partners.
While partners may agree on a value, accounting standards require that this agreement be based on fair value, not an arbitrary or subjective amount. The term "value agreed upon" is vague and could lead to manipulation.

B. At book value.
Book value (historical cost less depreciation) reflects the contributor's carrying amount, which may be outdated and not representative of the asset's current worth. Using book value would distort the partnership's balance sheet.

D. At the original cost.
Original cost may not reflect the asset's current economic value at the time of contribution. Depreciation or market fluctuations could make original cost irrelevant for recording a capital contribution.

References:

GAAP / Partnership Accounting – ASC 323 (Investments – Equity Method) & ASC 805: Non-cash contributions to a partnership should be recorded at their fair value on the date of contribution.

IFRS – IAS 16 (Property, Plant and Equipment) & IFRS 13 (Fair Value Measurement): Assets acquired in exchange transactions are initially measured at fair value.

Which of the following is most important for an internal auditor to check with regard to the database version?

A. Verify whether the organization uses the most recent database software version.

B. Verify whether the database software version is supported by the vendor.

C. Verify whether the database software version has been recently upgraded.

D. Verify whether .access to database version information is appropriately restricted.

B.   Verify whether the database software version is supported by the vendor.

Explanation:

An unsupported database version creates critical risks that can severely impact the organization. The primary concern is that unsupported software no longer receives essential security patches and updates. When vendors end support, they stop providing fixes for newly identified security vulnerabilities, leaving the system exposed to exploitation.

This lack of support directly creates the following risks:

Security Vulnerabilities: Known vulnerabilities remain unpatched, making the database a prime target for cyberattacks.

Regulatory Non-Compliance: Many frameworks like HIPAA, PCI DSS, GDPR, and SOX require the use of supported software with regular security updates. Unsupported systems often fail IT General Controls (ITGC) reviews and compliance audits.

Operational Challenges: Without vendor support, there is no official assistance for resolving bugs or technical issues, increasing the risk of system instability or failure.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

A. Verify whether the organization uses the most recent database software version. This is not the most important check. Using the absolute newest version is not required; what matters is that the version is actively supported. Many stable, older versions are perfectly acceptable if they remain in the vendor's support lifecycle.

C. Verify whether the database software version has been recently upgraded. The focus on "recent" upgrades is misplaced. The issue is not the date of the last upgrade but the current support status. A version upgraded a while ago might already be out of support, while an older but still-supported version could be less risky.

D. Verify whether access to database version information is appropriately restricted.
While access control is an important security control, it is a separate consideration from the operational and risk implications tied to the version itself. Establishing vendor support is the foundational check; access restrictions are a different control objective entirely.

During which of the following phases of contracting does the organization analyze whether the market is aligned with organizational objectives?

A. Initiation phase

B. Bidding phase

C. Development phase

D. Negotiation phase

A.   Initiation phase

Explanation:

The initiation phase (also called the planning or requirements phase) is the first stage of the contracting lifecycle. During this phase, the organization identifies its needs, defines project objectives, and conducts market analysis to determine whether the external market can meet those needs. This includes assessing vendor capabilities, industry trends, competitive landscape, and whether available solutions align with the organization's strategic goals. This up-front analysis is critical because it informs the decision of whether to proceed with procurement, what type of contract to use, and what requirements to include in the solicitation documents.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Bidding phase.
This is the phase where requests for proposals (RFPs) are issued, and vendors submit their bids. Market alignment analysis would have already been completed before this stage to define the requirements in the RFP.

C. Development phase.
This occurs after a contract is awarded, focusing on developing and delivering the product or service. It does not involve market alignment analysis.

D. Negotiation phase.
This is where contract terms, pricing, and conditions are finalized with the selected vendor. By this point, the market analysis has already been done to ensure the vendor fits the organization's needs.

References:

IIA GTAG – Auditing Procurement and Vendor Management: Defines the contracting lifecycle stages, with the initiation phase being the point where business needs are defined and market analysis is conducted to determine if external solutions can meet organizational objectives.

IIA CIA Part 3 Syllabus – Procurement / Contracting: Tests the candidate's understanding of the procurement lifecycle, including the importance of aligning market capabilities with strategic objectives during the initiation phase.

Internal auditors want to increase the likelihood of identifying very small control and transaction anomalies in their testing that could potentially be exploited to cause material breaches. Which of the following techniques would best meet this objective?

A. Analysis of the full population of existing data.

B. Verification of the completeness and integrity of existing data.

C. Continuous monitoring on a repetitive basis.

D. Analysis of the databases of partners, such as suppliers.

A.   Analysis of the full population of existing data.

Explanation:

To identify very small control and transaction anomalies that could be exploited to cause material breaches, the most effective technique is to analyze the full population of data rather than relying on sampling. When anomalies are small, infrequent, or widely dispersed, traditional sampling may miss them entirely. By testing the entire dataset, the auditor can detect even the smallest outliers, deviations, or exceptions that might indicate fraud, control weaknesses, or systemic errors. Full-population analysis maximizes detection capability and provides comprehensive assurance that no anomalies are overlooked.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Verification of the completeness and integrity of existing data.
This focuses on ensuring data is accurate, complete, and hasn't been tampered with—a data quality check. While important, it does not specifically target anomalies in transactions or controls.

C. Continuous monitoring on a repetitive basis.
Continuous monitoring is useful for ongoing surveillance, but it typically relies on established rules and thresholds. It may not be as effective as a full-population analysis for identifying novel or subtle anomalies. Additionally, the question asks about a specific testing technique, not a monitoring program.

D. Analysis of the databases of partners, such as suppliers.
This involves external data and could help detect vendor-related fraud (e.g., shell companies). However, it is a narrower technique that does not address the broader objective of identifying all small anomalies across the organization's own control and transaction data.

References:

IIA GTAG – Data Analysis Technologies:
Emphasizes that analyzing entire populations (rather than samples) significantly improves the ability to detect small, infrequent anomalies that could indicate fraud or control deficiencies.

IIA Practice Guide – Data Analytics in Internal Audit:
Recommends full-population testing to achieve higher assurance and identify exceptions that sampling might miss.

Which of the following is an example of a key systems development control typically found in the In-house development of an application system?

A. Logical access controls monitor application usage and generate audit trails.

B. The development process is designed to prevent, detect, and correct errors that may occur.

C. A record is maintained to track the process of data from Input, to output to storage.

D. Business users' requirements are documented, and their achievement is monitored

D.   Business users' requirements are documented, and their achievement is monitored

Explanation:

In in-house systems development, the most critical control is ensuring that the final application delivers what the business actually needs. This is achieved through a formal requirements management process, which involves documenting business users' functional and non-functional requirements, obtaining their approval, and actively monitoring progress against these requirements throughout the development lifecycle.

This control addresses the single biggest risk in custom development: building the wrong system. Even if the code is error-free and technically elegant, the project fails if it does not align with business objectives. By maintaining traceability from requirements to design, testing, and delivery, the organization ensures that scope creep is controlled, user expectations are met, and the final product is fit for purpose. This control is foundational to the entire SDLC and provides a baseline for all subsequent testing (unit, integration, UAT) and acceptance.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Logical access controls monitor application usage and generate audit trails.
This describes application controls that operate within the completed system (e.g., authentication, authorization, logging). These are operational security controls, not controls over the development process itself. They are implemented after development, not as part of the development methodology.

B. The development process is designed to prevent, detect, and correct errors that may occur.
This is a vague, generic statement that could describe quality assurance (QA) or error-handling mechanisms. While error prevention is an objective, it is not a specific systems development control. It does not address the unique governance and requirement-tracking needs of in-house development.

C. A record is maintained to track the process of data from input, to output to storage.
This describes a data audit trail or data flow documentation, which is an operational control for transaction processing and integrity. Like option A, it is an application control within the final system, not a control over the development lifecycle.

References:

IIA GTAG – Auditing IT Projects: Emphasizes that successful IT projects depend on clearly defined business requirements, active user involvement, and formal traceability of requirements throughout the development lifecycle.

IIA GTAG – Systems Development and Change Management: Identifies requirements documentation and approval as a critical systems development control to ensure alignment with business objectives and prevent scope creep.

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of managerial accounting, which is not applicable to financial accounting?

A. Managerial accounting uses double-entry accounting and cost data.

B. Managerial accounting uses general accepted accounting principles.

C. Managerial accounting involves decision making based on quantifiable economic events.

D. Managerial accounting involves decision making based on predetermined standards.

D.   Managerial accounting involves decision making based on predetermined standards.

Explanation:

A distinguishing feature of managerial (management) accounting is its use of predetermined standards (such as standard costs, budgets, and performance benchmarks) for planning, control, and decision-making. Managerial accounting is forward-looking and internal-focused, using these benchmarks to evaluate performance, identify variances, and guide future actions. Financial accounting, by contrast, is historical and external-focused—it records past transactions and reports them in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) or IFRS, without using predetermined standards for decision-making.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Managerial accounting uses double-entry accounting and cost data. Both managerial and financial accounting use cost data, and financial accounting also relies on double-entry bookkeeping. This is not a distinguishing feature of managerial accounting.

B. Managerial accounting uses generally accepted accounting principles. This is false. Managerial accounting is not required to follow GAAP—it uses internal rules and formats tailored to management's needs. Financial accounting does follow GAAP/IFRS.

C. Managerial accounting involves decision making based on quantifiable economic events. Financial accounting also involves quantifiable economic events (transactions) recorded in financial statements. This is not unique to managerial accounting.

References:

CIA Part 3 Syllabus – Financial Management / Managerial vs. Financial Accounting: Tests the distinction that managerial accounting is future-oriented, internal, flexible, and uses standards/budgets, while financial accounting is historical, external, and GAAP-compliant.

Managerial Accounting Textbooks (Garrison, Horngren): Define managerial accounting as using predetermined standards (standard costing, budgets) for planning and control, distinguishing it from financial accounting.

Which of the following best describes a man-in-the-middle cyber-attack?

A. The perpetrator is able to delete data on the network without physical access to the device.

B. The perpetrator is able to exploit network activities for unapproved purposes.

C. The perpetrator is able to take over control of data communication in transit and replace traffic.

D. The perpetrator is able to disable default security controls and introduce additional vulnerabilities

C.   The perpetrator is able to take over control of data communication in transit and replace traffic.

Explanation:

A man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack occurs when an attacker intercepts, relays, and potentially alters communication between two parties who believe they are communicating directly with each other. The attacker positions themselves between the sender and receiver, capturing and controlling the data in transit. They can eavesdrop on sensitive information (e.g., credentials, financial data) or modify/replace the traffic before forwarding it to the intended recipient. This allows the attacker to compromise data integrity and confidentiality without either party knowing they are being intercepted.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. The perpetrator is able to delete data on the network without physical access to the device. This describes a remote deletion or unauthorized data destruction attack, not a man-in-the-middle attack. MITM focuses on intercepting and altering communications, not deleting data.

B. The perpetrator is able to exploit network activities for unapproved purposes. This is a vague description that could apply to many types of attacks (e.g., hacking, insider threats, misuse of privileges). It does not specifically describe the intercept-and-relay nature of a MITM attack.

D. The perpetrator is able to disable default security controls and introduce additional vulnerabilities.
This describes system compromise, exploitation, or backdoor installation—actions that may occur after an initial breach. MITM specifically involves intercepting communications, not disabling security controls on endpoints.

References:

IIA GTAG – Information Security Governance: Defines man-in-the-middle attacks as a threat where an attacker intercepts and potentially alters communications between two parties without their knowledge.

NIST SP 800-53 – SC-8 (Transmission Confidentiality and Integrity): Requires controls to protect against MITM attacks by ensuring data in transit is encrypted and cannot be intercepted or modified.

When evaluating the help desk services provided by a third-party service provider which of the following is likely to be the internal auditor's greatest concern?

A. Whether every call that the service provider received was logged by the help desk.

B. Whether a unique identification number was assigned to each issue identified by the service provider

C. Whether the service provider used its own facilities to provide help desk services

D. Whether the provider's responses and resolutions were well defined according to the service-level agreement.

D.   Whether the provider's responses and resolutions were well defined according to the service-level agreement.

Explanation:

When evaluating outsourced help desk services, the internal auditor's greatest concern is whether the third-party provider is meeting its contractual obligations as defined in the Service-Level Agreement (SLA). The SLA specifies key performance indicators such as response times, resolution times, escalation procedures, and service availability. If these are not clearly defined, measured, and enforced, the organization has no basis to hold the provider accountable for performance, quality, or user satisfaction. Without well-defined SLA terms, the organization cannot assess whether it is receiving the contracted value or whether operational risks are being managed effectively.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Whether every call that the service provider received was logged by the help desk.
Call logging is an operational detail and a detective control. While important, it is secondary to the broader concern of whether the provider is meeting overall SLA commitments.

B. Whether a unique identification number was assigned to each issue identified by the service provider.
Assigning unique IDs is a standard best practice for tracking, but it is a procedural control, not the primary concern. An auditor can verify other SLA metrics even if ticket numbering is not perfect.

C. Whether the service provider used its own facilities to provide help desk services.
The provider's physical location is irrelevant to service quality. What matters is the provider's performance and adherence to the SLA, not where the service is delivered.

References:

IIA GTAG – Auditing Outsourced Services and Third-Party Relationships: Emphasizes that SLAs are the primary governance tool for third-party services. Auditors must verify that SLAs contain clear, measurable performance standards and that the provider is meeting them.

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